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Case Study #1 Answer

There are two ways for Lee to solve the problem. Using the formula, the problem is solved this way:

FVn,i = Payment * [(1 + i)n –1] /i = FV = $4,000 * [(1.06)30 –1]/.06 = $316,232.75

If you are using a financial calculator, clear the calculator’s memory and solve:

1 = P/Y (payments per year)

4,000 = PMT (payment)

6 = I (interest rate)

30 = N (number of years)

Solve for FV = $316,232.75

 



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